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How is the definite integral obtained from the limit of the rectangular sum?

The definite integral is obtained by taking the limit of the Riemann sum as the number of partitions nn approaches infinity. As n→∞n \to \infty, the width of each subinterval 1n\frac{1}{n} approaches zero, and the sum of the rectangular areas converges to the exact area under the curve. This limiting value is defined as the definite integral ∫01f(x) dx\int_{0}^{1} f(x) \, dx.

Conditions

  • The function f(x)f(x) is Riemann integrable on [0,1][0,1].
  • The partition is uniform with nn subintervals.
  • The limit is taken as n→∞n \to \infty.

Reasoning, step by step

  1. Start with the finite Riemann sum 1n∑k=1nf(kn)\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n} f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right).
  2. Apply the limit operation lim⁡n→∞\lim_{n \to \infty} to the sum.
  3. Observe that the mesh size 1n\frac{1}{n} tends to zero.
  4. Recognize that the limit of the sum represents the exact area under the curve.
  5. Denote this limit as the definite integral ∫01f(x) dx\int_{0}^{1} f(x) \, dx.

Example

The video writes lim⁡n→∞[1n∑k=1nf(kn)]=∫01f(x) dx\lim_{n\to\infty}\left[\frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n} f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)\right] = \int_{0}^{1} f(x)\,dx, explaining that letting the number of divisions approach infinity makes the width of each small rectangle approach zero, and the limit of the rectangular sum is the exact value of the area under the curve.

Common misconceptions

  • Thinking that the integral is simply the sum for a very large nn, rather than the limit.
  • Confusing the differential dxdx with the finite width 1n\frac{1}{n}; dxdx represents the infinitesimal limit of 1n\frac{1}{n}.
  • Assuming the limit always exists without checking integrability conditions.

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Answers are generated from source material and independently checked. Consult the original video or creator if something is unclear.