Skip to content
← All questions

Why does the function sin⁡(1/x)\sin (1/x) have no limit as x approaches zero?

The function sin⁡(1/x)\sin(1/x) has no limit as x→0x \to 0 because one can construct two sequences approaching 0 whose function values oscillate between 1 and -1, violating the requirement that all sequences must converge to the same limit.

Conditions

  • The domain excludes x=0x=0 for the limit consideration.
  • Sequences must consist of points where the function is defined.
  • The accumulation point is x0=0x_0 = 0.

Reasoning, step by step

  1. Define two sequences: xn=1/(2πn+π/2)x_n = 1/(2\pi n + \pi/2) and yn=1/(2πn+3π/2)y_n = 1/(2\pi n + 3\pi/2).
  2. Verify that both xn→0x_n \to 0 and yn→0y_n \to 0 as n→∞n \to \infty.
  3. Ensure xn≠0x_n \neq 0 and yn≠0y_n \neq 0 for all nn.
  4. Calculate f(xn)=sin⁡(2πn+π/2)=1f(x_n) = \sin(2\pi n + \pi/2) = 1.
  5. Calculate f(yn)=sin⁡(2πn+3π/2)=−1f(y_n) = \sin(2\pi n + 3\pi/2) = -1.
  6. Observe that the output limits are 1 and -1, which are not equal.
  7. Conclude that the limit does not exist.

Example

The script explicitly chooses xn=1/(2πn+π/2)x_n=1/(2\pi n+\pi/2) and yn=1/(2πn+3π/2)y_n=1/(2\pi n+3\pi/2) to show outputs are always 1 and -1.

Common misconceptions

  • Thinking that assigning a value to f(0)f(0) would fix the limit; the limit depends on behavior near 0, not at 0.
  • Believing that because the function is bounded, it must have a limit; boundedness does not imply convergence.

Watch the explanation

Connected concepts

Explore next

Related questions

Find a method

↗
Understand why

↗
Meet the concept

↗
Find a method

↗

Answers are generated from source material and independently checked. Consult the original video or creator if something is unclear.