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Why is the area S first written as approximately equal to the rectangular sum here, rather than directly equal?

The area SS is written as approximately equal to the rectangular sum because, for any finite number of divisions nn, the sum of the areas of the rectangles does not exactly match the area under the curve. There are small gaps or overlaps between the tops of the rectangles and the curve f(x)f(x). Equality is only achieved in the limit as nn approaches infinity, where the width of each rectangle approaches zero and the approximation error vanishes.

Conditions

  • nn is a finite positive integer.
  • The function f(x)f(x) is not constant on the subintervals.
  • The limit n→∞n \to \infty has not yet been taken.

Reasoning, step by step

  1. Observe that the rectangles have a finite width 1n\frac{1}{n}.
  2. Note that the top of each rectangle is a horizontal line segment, while the curve f(x)f(x) may be curved.
  3. Identify the small regions between the rectangle tops and the curve as approximation errors.
  4. Conclude that the sum of rectangle areas is an approximation of the true area SS.
  5. Recognize that exact equality requires taking the limit as n→∞n \to \infty.

Example

The video explicitly writes S≈1n∑k=1nf(kn)S \approx \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^{n} f\left(\frac{k}{n}\right) and states that when nn is fixed, the total area of the rectangles is usually not equal to the area under the curve, so the approximately equal sign is used instead of the equals sign.

Common misconceptions

  • Believing that a large finite nn (like n=500n=500) makes the sum exactly equal to the area.
  • Confusing the visual appearance of continuity with mathematical equality.
  • Thinking that the approximation sign is just a notational convenience rather than reflecting a genuine mathematical difference for finite nn.

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Answers are generated from source material and independently checked. Consult the original video or creator if something is unclear.