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How is coker⁡(i)≃Y\operatorname{coker}(i)\simeq Y proved from the exact sequence?

The proof uses the definition of exactness and the First Isomorphism Theorem. From exactness at ZZ, im⁡(i)=ker⁡(p)\operatorname{im}(i) = \ker(p). From exactness at YY (due to Y→0Y\to 0), im⁡(p)=Y\operatorname{im}(p) = Y. Applying the First Isomorphism Theorem to p:Z→Yp:Z\to Y gives Z/ker⁡(p)≃im⁡(p)Z/\ker(p) \simeq \operatorname{im}(p). Substituting the exactness relations yields Z/im⁡(i)≃YZ/\operatorname{im}(i) \simeq Y, which is coker⁡(i)≃Y\operatorname{coker}(i) \simeq Y by definition.

Conditions

  • X→iZ→pY→0X \xrightarrow{i} Z \xrightarrow{p} Y \to 0 is an exact sequence of RR-modules.
  • RR is a commutative ring.

Reasoning, step by step

  1. Start with the exact sequence X→iZ→pY→0X \xrightarrow{i} Z \xrightarrow{p} Y \to 0.
  2. Use exactness at ZZ to establish im⁡(i)=ker⁡(p)\operatorname{im}(i) = \ker(p).
  3. Use exactness at YY (from Y→0Y\to 0) to establish im⁡(p)=Y\operatorname{im}(p) = Y.
  4. Apply the First Isomorphism Theorem to the map p:Z→Yp:Z\to Y, yielding Z/ker⁡(p)≃im⁡(p)Z/\ker(p) \simeq \operatorname{im}(p).
  5. Substitute im⁡(p)=Y\operatorname{im}(p) = Y into the isomorphism to get Z/ker⁡(p)≃YZ/\ker(p) \simeq Y.
  6. Substitute ker⁡(p)=im⁡(i)\ker(p) = \operatorname{im}(i) into the denominator to get Z/im⁡(i)≃YZ/\operatorname{im}(i) \simeq Y.
  7. Recognize Z/im⁡(i)Z/\operatorname{im}(i) as coker⁡(i)\operatorname{coker}(i) by definition.
  8. Conclude coker⁡(i)≃Y\operatorname{coker}(i) \simeq Y.
  9. The video explicitly walks through these substitution steps on the whiteboard.

Example

The video states: 'The board successively writes im⁡i=ker⁡p\operatorname{im} i=\ker p, X/ker⁡i≃im⁡iX/\ker i\simeq \operatorname{im} i, Z/ker⁡p≃im⁡pZ/\ker p\simeq \operatorname{im} p, im⁡p=Y\operatorname{im} p=Y, and Z/im⁡i≃YZ/\operatorname{im} i\simeq Y. ... Finally, replace ker⁡p\ker p by im⁡i\operatorname{im} i using the earlier exactness relation im⁡i=ker⁡p\operatorname{im} i=\ker p. The quotient becomes Z/im⁡i≃YZ/\operatorname{im} i \simeq Y. By the definition written at the start, Z/im⁡iZ/\operatorname{im} i is exactly coker⁡(i)\operatorname{coker}(i), so the desired conclusion coker⁡(i)≃Y\operatorname{coker}(i)\simeq Y follows.'

Common misconceptions

  • Forgetting to use the exactness at YY to conclude im⁡(p)=Y\operatorname{im}(p)=Y.
  • Confusing the First Isomorphism Theorem with the definition of cokernel.
  • Assuming the proof requires the map ii to be injective (which is not given in this part of the lemma).

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Answers are generated from source material and independently checked. Consult the original video or creator if something is unclear.