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Why does the existence of a GG-invariant inner product ensure that the orthogonal complement of a GG-invariant subspace is also GG-invariant?

If WW is a GG-invariant subspace and the inner product is GG-invariant, then for any y∈W⊥y \in W^{\perp} and g∈Gg \in G, the vector ρ(g)y\rho(g)y remains orthogonal to every w∈Ww \in W. This is shown by rewriting (ρ(g)y,w)(\rho(g)y, w) as (y,ρ(g−1)w)(y, \rho(g^{-1})w). Since WW is invariant, ρ(g−1)w∈W\rho(g^{-1})w \in W, and since y∈W⊥y \in W^{\perp}, the inner product is zero. Thus, ρ(g)y∈W⊥\rho(g)y \in W^{\perp}, proving W⊥W^{\perp} is GG-invariant.

Conditions

  • W⊆VW \subseteq V is a GG-invariant subspace (ρ(g)W⊆W\rho(g)W \subseteq W for all g∈Gg \in G).
  • The inner product (⋅,⋅)(\cdot, \cdot) on VV is GG-invariant ((ρ(g)v,ρ(g)w)=(v,w)(\rho(g)v, \rho(g)w) = (v, w)).
  • W⊥={y∈V∣(y,w)=0 for all w∈W}W^{\perp} = \{y \in V \mid (y, w) = 0 \text{ for all } w \in W\}.

Reasoning, step by step

  1. Take an arbitrary y∈W⊥y \in W^{\perp} and g∈Gg \in G.
  2. Fix an arbitrary w∈Ww \in W.
  3. Use the representation property to write w=ρ(g)(ρ(g−1)w)w = \rho(g)(\rho(g^{-1})w).
  4. Apply the GG-invariant inner product condition to get (ρ(g)y,w)=(y,ρ(g−1)w)(\rho(g)y, w) = (y, \rho(g^{-1})w).
  5. Note that ρ(g−1)w∈W\rho(g^{-1})w \in W because WW is GG-invariant.
  6. Conclude that (y,ρ(g−1)w)=0(y, \rho(g^{-1})w) = 0 because y∈W⊥y \in W^{\perp}.
  7. Deduce that ρ(g)y∈W⊥\rho(g)y \in W^{\perp}, so W⊥W^{\perp} is GG-invariant.

Example

The video proves this by showing the chain (ρ(g)y,w)=(ρ(g)y,ρ(g)ρ(g−1)w)=(y,ρ(g−1)w)=0(\rho(g)y, w) = (\rho(g)y, \rho(g)\rho(g^{-1})w) = (y, \rho(g^{-1})w) = 0, leveraging the invariance of both WW and the inner product.

Common misconceptions

  • Assuming that any inner product makes orthogonal complements invariant; the invariance of the inner product is crucial.
  • Forgetting to use the inverse element g−1g^{-1} when transferring the group action from one argument to the other.

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