Why is Leibniz notation for the chain rule not justified by simple fraction cancellation?
Conditions
- Functions are differentiable.
- The inner derivative can be zero.
- The argument requires rigorous limit definitions, not informal algebra.
Reasoning, step by step
- Acknowledge that looks like a fraction.
- Recall that derivatives are defined as limits of difference quotients.
- Note that if , dividing by is invalid in standard algebra.
- Use the exact increment formula: .
- Show that as , and .
- Conclude that the limit yields the product of derivatives without illegal division.
Example
If and , then . Simple cancellation would involve dividing by zero, but the limit definition handles this correctly, yielding .
Common misconceptions
- Treating and as independent infinitesimal numbers that can be freely cancelled.
- Believing the chain rule fails when the inner derivative is zero.
- Thinking that Leibniz notation is merely a mnemonic with no rigorous basis.
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