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Why does mutual information equal zero when variables are independent?

When XX and YY are independent, knowing one tells you nothing about the other. Mathematically, the joint distribution factors into the product of the marginals, p(x,y)=p(x)⋅p(y)p(x,y) = p(x) \cdot p(y). Because there is no shared information or statistical structure beyond the product of marginals, the mutual information I(X;Y)I(X;Y) is exactly zero.

Conditions

  • Applies to the case where XX and YY are independent.
  • The displayed notation uses probability mass functions p(x)p(x), p(y)p(y), and p(x,y)p(x,y).

Reasoning, step by step

  1. Identify that XX and YY are independent.
  2. State the factorization of the joint distribution: p(x,y)=p(x)⋅p(y)p(x,y) = p(x) \cdot p(y).
  3. Recognize that observing YY provides no reduction in uncertainty about XX.
  4. Conclude that the mutual information I(X;Y)I(X;Y) is exactly zero.

Example

The video shows a square grid uniformly shaded orange under the heading 'Independent', with the formulas p(x,y)=p(x)⋅p(y)p(x,y)=p(x)\cdot p(y) and I(X;Y)=0I(X;Y)=0 displayed below it.

Common misconceptions

  • Confusing dependence with zero mutual information; dependence is paired with non-factorization and strictly positive mutual information.
  • Assuming that independent variables can still have some pattern in their joint distribution; the uniform grid shows no concentration pattern.

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Answers are generated from source material and independently checked. Consult the original video or creator if something is unclear.